MASS Test: 45 Practice Questions and EEI Study Guide

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The MASS Test is an Edison Electric Institute (EEI) employment-test battery used for many power-plant maintenance and craft selection processes. Its official name is the Power Plant Maintenance Positions Selection System. EEI develops and supplies employment tests to participating energy companies. EEI does not administer MASS directly to individual applicants. The hiring utility controls scheduling, delivery method, cutoff standards, retest rules, how results are communicated, and whether a prior score may be considered.

The commonly described MASS battery covers Mechanical Concepts, Assembling Objects, Mathematical Usage, and Reading Comprehension. Exact delivery format, timing, scoring displays, and local rules can differ by company, so your invitation and candidate materials control the live experience. JobTestPrep sells third-party MASS preparation. JobTestPrep is not EEI, a utility, a hiring employer, or the official test administrator.

The 45 questions on this page are original study exercises. They are not official EEI, MASS, utility-company, employer, testing-center, or JobTestPrep questions and do not reproduce a proprietary test form. Always follow the instructions supplied by the hiring utility.

What Is the MASS Test?

MASS stands for Power Plant Maintenance Positions Selection System. It is an EEI employment-selection battery associated with maintenance positions in power-generation environments. Some search results also show the phrase “Maintenance Aptitude Selection System.” That wording is a common search variation or mistaken expansion. Current EEI battery documentation uses Power Plant Maintenance Positions Selection System (MASS).

MASS is an aptitude and selection battery rather than a plant job-knowledge certification exam. It is designed to help utilities evaluate candidates for maintenance and craft pathways. It is not interchangeable with POSS (plant operators), CAST (construction and skilled trades across broader utility work), or TECH (technician occupations that commonly require an associate degree).

Who Uses the MASS Test?

EEI associates MASS with maintenance positions in fossil, nuclear, and hydroelectric plants. Official EEI battery examples include mechanic, machinist, electrician, welder, and pipe fitter roles. Not every utility and not every maintenance posting uses MASS. Some employers use other EEI batteries or employer-specific assessments.

Example of employer use: Entergy’s current public pre-employment testing page lists Power Plant Maintenance Positions Selection System (MASS) among the EEI tests it partners with, alongside batteries such as POSS, CAST, and TECH. Other EEI member utilities may also assign MASS when the vacancy requires it. Always confirm the assigned battery name in your invitation.

Does EEI Administer the Test?

No. Current EEI Industry Training and Testing guidance states that EEI’s Employment Testing Department supplies tests to participating member companies. EEI does not administer tests directly to applicants. Applicants should deal with the hiring electric company about scheduling, accommodations, and results. EEI does not provide results directly to applicants. Candidates who previously completed an EEI test should notify the new hiring company so it can decide whether prior results can be used.

MASS Test Format

Topic	Current evidence status
Official battery name	Power Plant Maintenance Positions Selection System (MASS) - confirmed by current EEI Employment Test Batteries documentation
Intended job family	Power-plant maintenance positions (fossil, nuclear, hydroelectric contexts in EEI documentation)
Sections commonly described	Mechanical Concepts; Assembling Objects; Mathematical Usage; Reading Comprehension - commonly described by third-party preparation providers and candidate resources; confirm on your invitation
Question count	118 total questions is commonly described by JobTestPrep and many candidate resources; not published as a fixed public rule in the EEI Industry Training overview; follow your invitation
Section timing (commonly described)	Mechanical Concepts about 44 questions / 20 minutes; Assembling Objects about 20 / 15; Mathematical Usage about 18 / 7; Reading Comprehension about 36 / 30 - supported mainly by JobTestPrep-style candidate materials; treat as commonly described, not universal
Total testing time	Roughly two hours of section time is commonly described by third-party sources; instruction, check-in, and breaks can add time and are utility-specific
Delivery method	EEI states most EEI tests can have multiple delivery options such as paper, computer, and testing center. Your hiring utility’s invitation controls the actual MASS delivery method
Scoring	Weighted index claims such as 0 to 15 are described by JobTestPrep and some candidate resources; not presented here as a verified universal public EEI scoring rule
Result reporting	Some processes report outcomes in recommendation-style language; other utilities communicate qualification differently. Utility-specific
Retest policy	Utility-specific (see example below). Do not assume one waiting period applies everywhere

Mechanical Concepts

This area focuses on transferable physical principles rather than plant repair procedures. Useful review themes include force, motion, levers, pulleys, gears, belts, gravity, center of gravity, friction, pressure, basic fluid relationships, heat transfer, and simple circuit continuity concepts.

Do not treat MASS Mechanical Concepts practice as permission to diagnose energized equipment, bypass protections, or perform operational maintenance tasks.

Assembling Objects

This area may assess how separate pieces form a complete object. Practical strategies include matching edges, checking internal versus external boundaries, tracking rotations, counting parts, eliminating impossible assemblies, preserving relative dimensions, and watching distinctive shapes.

Diagrams on official forms are proprietary. The practice items below use original text-based spatial reasoning only.

Mathematical Usage

This section may involve arithmetic with information supplied in a table or formula reference. Transferable skills include fractions, decimals, ratios, rates, unit conversion, proportional reasoning, substituting into a supplied formula, and choosing a “none of the above” option when the listed values are all wrong.

Do not expect a single universal conversion table on every administration. Use the table your invitation or booklet provides.

Reading Comprehension

Reading items often use technical or training-style passages. Useful skills include locating stated facts, vocabulary in context, distinguishing supported conclusions from unsupported assumptions, tracking sequence and cause, and finding evidence in the passage.

How Many Questions Are on MASS?

JobTestPrep and many candidate-facing preparation materials currently describe MASS as 118 questions across four sections. Current EEI public overview pages emphasize job-family purpose and administration rules rather than publishing that exact item count as a fixed consumer-facing specification. Treat 118 as the format commonly described by JobTestPrep and related candidate resources unless your invitation or employer brochure states otherwise.

How Long Is the MASS Test?

Third-party materials commonly describe about two hours of section testing time when the commonly listed section timings are added. That figure does not automatically include check-in, instructions, or breaks. Administration length is utility-specific. Do not treat any unofficial practice timer on this page as an official MASS clock.

Is MASS Paper-Based or Computer-Based?

EEI currently states that most of its employment tests can have multiple delivery options, including examples such as paper, computer, and testing center. JobTestPrep currently describes MASS as paper-based and not available online. Because EEI’s public delivery guidance is broader, do not assume MASS is always paper-only for every utility.

Use wording like this for planning:

EEI states that most of its employment tests can have multiple delivery options. Your hiring utility’s invitation controls whether your MASS assessment is delivered on paper, by computer, or at a designated testing location.

Computer-based delivery does not necessarily mean remote or unproctored testing. A utility may still require a testing center or supervised site.

Can You Use a Calculator?

Calculator policy is utility-specific. Do not rely on a third-party page as a universal rule. Follow the invitation, candidate brochure, and proctor instructions for your hiring company.

Can You Guess?

Some third-party materials state there is no penalty for incorrect answers. That claim is not treated here as a verified universal EEI public rule for every administration. Follow the live instructions. Do not base a guessing strategy only on JobTestPrep wording.

How Is MASS Scored?

EEI public overview materials emphasize that hiring companies handle applicant results. JobTestPrep and some candidate resources describe a weighted score index on a 0-to-15 scale and recommendation-style outcomes such as Recommended or Not Recommended. Those details are not published here as confirmed universal EEI consumer rules. Utilities can use their own cutoffs and reporting language. Candidates may or may not receive a numeric score.

What Score Do You Need?

There is no universal public passing score that should be assumed for every utility. One company’s qualifying result may not satisfy another company. JobTestPrep practice scores do not predict employer decisions, interview invitations, or hiring outcomes.

Can MASS Scores Be Transferred?

Transfer may be possible in some employer processes, but it is not automatic. EEI advises candidates who previously completed an EEI test to notify the new hiring company. Entergy, for example, currently directs candidates who previously passed the required test elsewhere to complete an EEI Authorization to Release form and return it to Entergy’s candidate-testing contact. The receiving company decides whether the prior result can be used or whether a retest is required.

What Is the Retest Waiting Period?

Waiting periods and annual attempt limits are employer-specific. Do not publish 30 days, 90 days, or two attempts per year as universal MASS rules.

Entergy example only: Entergy’s current public pre-employment testing page states that a minimum of 30 days must pass between the first and second attempt on the same EEI test, and that applicants may not take the same test more than twice in a twelve-month period. Other utilities may publish different rules. Confirm with your hiring company.

MASS vs POSS

Feature	MASS	POSS
Official focus in EEI documentation	Power-plant maintenance positions	Plant operator positions
Typical role examples (EEI)	Mechanic, machinist, electrician, welder, pipe fitter	Power plant operator; control room operator; nuclear reactor operator
Interchangeable?	No	No

Both are EEI batteries tied to power-generation employment, but they target different job families. For POSS preparation, see the EEI POSS Test guide.

MASS vs CAST

CAST is intended for construction and skilled-trade job families across areas such as transmission, distribution, facilities, equipment, and related work. MASS is specifically associated with power-plant maintenance positions. Do not treat CAST practice as a complete MASS substitute. For CAST preparation, see the EEI CAST Test guide.

MASS vs TECH

TECH is intended for technician occupations that commonly require an associate degree. MASS is a maintenance-positions selection battery. Do not merge TECH content into MASS preparation unless your invitation names TECH. For TECH preparation, see the EEI TECH Test guide.

MASS vs Generic Mechanical Aptitude Tests

A generic mechanical aptitude test may measure only mechanical reasoning. MASS, as commonly described, combines Mechanical Concepts with Assembling Objects, Mathematical Usage, and Reading Comprehension. Preparing only mechanical items leaves large parts of the commonly described battery unpractised.

MASS is also distinct from a generic industrial-maintenance job-knowledge test. Maintenance-knowledge exams may ask about tools, troubleshooting, or equipment systems. MASS is a named EEI selection battery with its own aptitude structure.

Free MASS Practice Questions

MASS is a proprietary EEI employment-test battery, and its current delivery may vary by utility. The questions below use an original static four-option format to practise related mechanical, spatial, mathematical, and reading skills. They do not reproduce an official MASS form, conversion table, interface, passage, diagram, or scoring system.

Complete the set untimed first. Optional unofficial drills afterward:

• 15 Mechanical Concepts questions in 12 minutes (unofficial);
• 10 Assembling Objects questions in 10 minutes (unofficial);
• 10 Mathematical Usage questions in 8 minutes (unofficial);
• 10 Reading Comprehension questions in 12 minutes (unofficial);
• all 45 questions in 45 minutes (unofficial).

These timings do not reproduce current MASS section timing.

Section 1: Mechanical Concepts (questions 1-15)

1. A rigid bar rests on a fulcrum. A 40 N load sits 0.5 m to the right of the fulcrum. Where must a 20 N effort act to the left of the fulcrum to balance the bar?

A. 0.5 m left of the fulcrum B. 1.0 m left of the fulcrum C. 1.5 m left of the fulcrum D. 2.0 m left of the fulcrum

Correct answer: B

Balance requires equal and opposite torques: load torque = 40 N x 0.5 m = 20 N.m. Effort torque must also equal 20 N.m, so distance = 20 N.m / 20 N = 1.0 m.

2. A first-class lever lifts a crate. Compared with placing the effort closer to the fulcrum, moving the effort farther from the fulcrum typically:

A. reduces the effort needed for the same load B. increases the effort needed for the same load C. has no effect on mechanical advantage D. removes the need for a fulcrum

Correct answer: A

Mechanical advantage rises when the effort arm is longer than the load arm. Moving the effort farther from the fulcrum lengthens the effort arm, so less effort is needed for the same load (neglecting friction).

3. A single fixed pulley changes the direction of a rope but does not multiply force. Ignoring friction, what effort is needed to hold a 120 N load motionless?

A. 30 N B. 60 N C. 120 N D. 240 N

Correct answer: C

A single fixed pulley redirects force. Ideal force balance means effort equals load, so 120 N.

4. A movable pulley arrangement supports a load with two rope segments sharing the weight. Ignoring friction, about what effort is needed to support a 200 N load?

A. 50 N B. 150 N C. 200 N D. 100 N

Correct answer: D

With two supporting rope segments, the ideal effort is about half the load: 200 N ÷ 2 = 100 N.

5. Two meshed spur gears have equal tooth counts. If the driver gear turns clockwise, the driven gear turns:

A. counterclockwise at the same speed B. clockwise at the same speed C. counterclockwise at twice the speed D. clockwise at half the speed

Correct answer: A

External meshing reverses direction. Equal tooth counts mean equal rotational speeds, so the driven gear turns counterclockwise at the same speed.

6. A small driver gear (20 teeth) turns a larger driven gear (40 teeth). Compared with the driver, the driven gear rotates:

A. twice as fast with higher torque B. half as fast with higher torque C. half as fast with lower torque D. twice as fast with lower torque

Correct answer: B

Speed ratio = teeth_driver / teeth_driven = 20/40 = 1/2, so the driven gear turns at half the driver’s speed. Torque on the larger gear is higher in an ideal gear pair.

7. An open belt connects two parallel shafts without crossing. If the driving pulley rotates clockwise, the driven pulley rotates:

A. counterclockwise B. first clockwise, then counterclockwise C. either direction depending only on belt color D. clockwise

Correct answer: D

An open (uncrossed) belt keeps both pulleys rotating in the same direction. A crossed belt would reverse direction. The driven pulley therefore turns clockwise.

8. Two identical blocks rest on different surfaces. Block X is on a smoother surface than Block Y. For the same horizontal push that starts motion on both (once motion begins), which statement is most accurate?

A. Kinetic friction is always larger than the push B. Gravity disappears on smooth surfaces C. The smoother surface usually provides less kinetic friction D. The rougher surface always requires less force to keep the block moving

Correct answer: C

Smoother contact usually means smaller friction coefficients, so less kinetic friction opposes sliding. Gravity still acts; friction is not always larger than the push once motion is established.

9. A uniform beam is perfectly balanced on a support at its midpoint. If a heavy mass is bolted near the right end only, the center of gravity of the combined system moves:

A. toward the right end B. toward the left end C. straight upward only D. to infinity

Correct answer: A

Adding mass on the right shifts the combined center of mass toward that added mass, so toward the right end.

10. A sealed piston presses on a trapped liquid. If the piston area is reduced while the force on the piston stays the same, the pressure in the liquid:

A. decreases because pressure equals force times area B. increases because pressure equals force divided by area C. stays the same because liquids cannot transmit pressure D. becomes zero because the piston is sealed

Correct answer: B

Pressure P = F / A. Smaller area with the same force raises pressure. Liquids transmit pressure; a seal does not set pressure to zero.

11. Incompressible fluid flows steadily through a horizontal pipe that narrows. Compared with the wide section, flow speed in the narrow section is:

A. lower because the pipe is tighter B. unchanged because volume is conserved every second only in tanks C. higher because the same volume must pass through a smaller cross-section each second D. zero because narrowing always stops flow

Correct answer: C

Continuity for incompressible steady flow: A₁v₁ = A₂v₂. Smaller area means higher speed so that volume flow rate stays the same.

12. A metal rod and a wooden rod of the same size are each heated at one end. Heat travels through the metal more quickly mainly because metals usually:

A. have lower density than wood B. are colder than wood C. cannot absorb heat D. conduct thermal energy more effectively than wood

Correct answer: D

Metals are typically good thermal conductors, so heat transfers along the metal rod faster than along wood under similar conditions.

13. In a simple series circuit with one battery and one closed switch, a single light bulb lights. If the switch is opened, the bulb goes out because:

A. voltage doubles across the bulb B. the conductive path for current is interrupted C. resistance becomes zero D. the battery polarity reverses

Correct answer: B

An open switch breaks the closed conducting loop, so current cannot flow and the bulb does not light.

14. A rigid platform is supported evenly by four identical legs. If a centered load is increased without tipping the platform, each leg ideally carries:

A. about one-fourth of the total downward load B. the entire load alone C. zero load because the platform is rigid D. twice the total load

Correct answer: A

For a centered load on four identical supports, each support ideally shares about one-fourth of the load.

15. A wheel and axle lifts a load. A longer wheel radius, with the axle radius unchanged, generally:

A. reduces mechanical advantage B. eliminates friction completely C. increases mechanical advantage for the same axle radius D. forces the load to move farther for less wheel rotation

Correct answer: C

Ideal mechanical advantage relates wheel radius to axle radius. Increasing wheel radius (effort radius) increases mechanical advantage when axle radius is unchanged.

Section 2: Assembling Objects (questions 16-25)

16. Three pieces must form a rectangle: a long horizontal rectangle, a short left vertical rectangle, and a short right vertical rectangle. Which pairing correctly describes the finished figure?

A. Two short pieces form the top and bottom only B. The long piece forms left and right sides only C. The long piece is vertical and the short pieces form the top and bottom D. The long piece forms the top (or bottom) and the two short pieces form the left and right sides

Correct answer: D

A typical three-piece frame uses one long horizontal member and two short uprights. That matches option D. The other options reverse which edges the long piece can form.

17. Piece P is an L-shaped angle. Piece Q is a matching L-shaped angle. Together they should form a closed rectangular ring with a rectangular hole. Which statement must be true?

A. Their inner corners must face each other so the outer edges complete a rectangle B. Both L pieces must face the same direction without overlapping edges C. One L piece must be placed diagonally across the other D. The pieces can form a closed ring only if one piece is discarded

Correct answer: A

Two complementary L pieces form a rectangular frame when their inner corners face each other and outer edges align into a rectangle.

18. Four triangular pieces are labeled: two right triangles with the short legs meeting at a point, and two larger triangles meant for the outer edges. The completed figure is a square. How should the right triangles meet?

A. Hypotenuses facing outward as the square’s outer sides B. Short legs meeting near the square’s center so hypotenuses form diagonal seams C. All four hypotenuses stacked on one edge D. Tips pointing away from the square so no edges touch

Correct answer: B

For many square assemblies of right triangles, the short legs meet toward the center while hypotenuses form longer seams or outer edges depending on size matching. Here the prompt states short legs meet at a point (center-like), so B fits.

19. Edge map: Piece 1 has outer sides Top=straight, Right=step, Bottom=straight, Left=notch. Piece 2 must attach on Piece 1’s right edge. Which Piece 2 left-edge description fits?

A. Left edge with a notch identical to Piece 1’s left notch only B. Left edge completely curved with no flat contact C. Left edge with a matching step that nests into Piece 1’s step D. Left edge longer than Piece 1’s total height

Correct answer: C

Mating edges must complement each other. Piece 1’s right step needs a matching step on Piece 2’s left edge.

20. A puzzle piece shows a tab on its top edge and a blank straight bottom. Which neighboring piece can sit above it?

A. A piece whose bottom edge has a matching slot for the tab B. A piece whose top edge also has an identical outward tab only C. Any piece, because tabs never need matching slots D. Only a piece with no edges at all

Correct answer: A

A top tab mates with a complementary bottom slot on the piece above it.

21. A flat arrow-shaped piece points right. After a 90° clockwise rotation in the plane, which way does it point?

A. Left B. Down C. Up D. Still right

Correct answer: B

A planar 90° clockwise turn maps right → down.

22. A shape looks like the letter L. After a 180° rotation in the plane, which description matches?

A. It still looks like an upright L in the same orientation B. It becomes a perfect circle C. It becomes a mirror-only reflection with no rotation D. It looks like an upside-down and reversed L (┐ style relative to the original corner)

Correct answer: D

A 180° rotation turns the L so the long arm and short arm swap positions relative to the viewer, appearing inverted/reversed rather than as the original upright L.

23. An assembly outline shows five outer edges. Four supplied pieces clearly cover four edges. One triangular corner piece is missing from the options. What should you do?

A. Force two of the four pieces to stretch across five edges B. Ignore the outline and pick any leftover rectangle C. Choose the option that supplies the missing triangular corner that completes all five edges D. Remove one existing piece so only three edges remain

Correct answer: C

The completed figure must cover the outline. The correct choice supplies the missing corner piece.

24. An options display shows completed figures that use 3, 4, 5, or 6 pieces. The stem provides exactly four separate pieces and forbids leftover parts. Which option can be correct?

A. The figure that uses exactly four pieces with no leftovers B. The figure that uses three pieces and hides the fourth C. The figure that uses six pieces D. The figure that uses five pieces

Correct answer: A

If four pieces are supplied and none may be left over, only a four-piece assembly is valid.

25. A piece has a unique curved bite permanently on its left side in its local coordinates. In the finished assembly the bite must face outward on the right. Which statement is most accurate?

A. The bite can face right without any rotation or reflection of the piece B. The piece must be rotated or reflected so its local left side points toward the assembly’s right C. The bite always faces left in world coordinates no matter how the piece is turned D. Curved bites cannot appear on outer edges

Correct answer: B

A local left-side feature faces world-right only after the piece is reoriented by rotation or reflection. The bite cannot change side without reorienting the piece.

Section 3: Mathematical Usage (questions 26-35)

Use this reference table for questions 26-35 when a conversion is required:

Quantity	Conversion
Length	1 foot = 12 inches
Length	1 yard = 3 feet
Mass	1 kilogram = 1000 grams
Volume	1 liter = 1000 milliliters
Time	1 hour = 60 minutes
Area	Area of rectangle = length x width
Volume (box)	Volume = length x width x height
Rate	Distance = rate x time

26. Convert 2.5 feet to inches using the table.

A. 25 inches B. 36 inches C. 24 inches D. 30 inches

Correct answer: D

2.5 x 12 = 30 inches.

27. A hose delivers 8 liters in 2 minutes. What is the delivery rate in liters per minute?

A. 4 liters per minute B. 6 liters per minute C. 10 liters per minute D. 16 liters per minute

Correct answer: A

Rate = 8 liters ÷ 2 minutes = 4 liters per minute.

28. What is 3/4 of 48?

A. 12 B. 24 C. 36 D. 40

Correct answer: C

(3/4) x 48 = 36.

29. A reading shows 0.65 meters. Which option equals that same length in centimeters if 1 meter = 100 centimeters?

A. 6.5 cm B. 65 cm C. 650 cm D. 0.065 cm

Correct answer: B

0.65 x 100 = 65 centimeters.

30. Oil and solvent are mixed in the ratio 3:5. If the mixture is 40 liters total, how many liters are oil?

A. 25 liters B. 20 liters C. 24 liters D. 15 liters

Correct answer: D

Parts = 3 + 5 = 8. Oil = (3/8) x 40 = 15 liters.

31. A cart travels 90 kilometers in 3 hours at a constant speed. What is its speed?

A. 30 km/h B. 27 km/h C. 45 km/h D. 270 km/h

Correct answer: A

Speed = distance / time = 90 / 3 = 30 km/h.

32. A rectangular panel is 1.2 m long and 0.5 m wide. What is its area?

A. 1.7 m2 B. 2.4 m2 C. 0.6 m2 D. 0.06 m2

Correct answer: C

Area = length x width = 1.2 x 0.5 = 0.6 m2.

33. A formula sheet gives Power = Force x Speed. If Force = 50 N and Speed = 2 m/s, what is Power?

A. 25 W B. 100 W C. 52 W D. 0.04 W

Correct answer: B

Power = 50 x 2 = 100 W (using the supplied formula).

34. A tank holds 12 liters. First, 3.5 liters are removed. Then 2.25 liters are added. How many liters remain?

A. 6.75 liters B. 7.25 liters C. 13.75 liters D. 10.75 liters

Correct answer: D

12 - 3.5 = 8.5; 8.5 + 2.25 = 10.75 liters.

35. Using the table, convert 2 yards to inches. If none of the listed values matches the correct conversion, choose D.

A. 24 inches B. 36 inches C. 48 inches D. None of the above

Correct answer: D

2 yards = 2 x 3 feet = 6 feet; 6 x 12 = 72 inches. A, B, and C are all incorrect, so D.

Section 4: Reading Comprehension (questions 36-45)

Passage A (questions 36-39)

A utility candidate packet states that applicants must bring a government-issued photo ID to the test site. The packet allows only materials listed on the invitation. Candidates who arrive more than 15 minutes after the scheduled start may be refused entry. Practice materials from the employer are shorter than the live battery and exist only to illustrate format. Results are released according to the employer’s schedule, not by EEI to the applicant.

36. According to Passage A, which statement about late arrival is stated?

A. Candidates may arrive any time during the test day B. Late arrival is encouraged for practice tests only C. Arrival more than 15 minutes after the scheduled start may lead to refusal of entry D. EEI sets a universal nationwide late-entry rule for all utilities

Correct answer: C

Passage A states candidates arriving more than 15 minutes after the scheduled start may be refused entry. It does not claim a universal EEI rule for every utility.

37. The main idea of Passage A is that candidates should:

A. treat employer practice tests as identical full live batteries B. follow the invitation rules for ID, materials, timing, and result communication C. expect EEI to email numeric scores automatically D. bring any materials they find useful whether listed or not

Correct answer: B

The passage centers on invitation-controlled ID, materials, timing, practice-test limits, and employer result release.

38. In Passage A, the word illustrate most nearly means:

A. replace B. score C. cancel D. show an example of

Correct answer: D

Practice materials “exist only to illustrate format” means they show an example of the format, not replace the live test.

39. Which conclusion is supported by Passage A?

A. Employer practice materials differ slightly from the live test and are shorter B. Every utility uses the same result schedule C. Photo ID requirements are optional D. Practice materials are always longer than the live battery

Correct answer: A

The passage states practice materials are shorter than the live battery and illustrate format. The other options contradict the passage.

Passage B (questions 40-43)

Before a maintenance plant walkthrough, the supervisor reminds apprentices that tags on equipment identify isolation status for training observation only. Apprentices must stay behind marked barriers. If a barrier is missing, the group must stop and notify the supervisor before continuing. The purpose of the walkthrough is orientation, not hands-on repair. Food and drinks are prohibited in the marked observation zones.

40. According to Passage B, what should the group do if a barrier is missing?

A. Continue quickly to stay on schedule B. Remove tags and proceed with repairs C. Stop and notify the supervisor before continuing D. Move the barriers from another area without notice

Correct answer: C

The passage states the group must stop and notify the supervisor before continuing.

41. The purpose of the walkthrough in Passage B is:

A. hands-on repair certification B. orientation rather than hands-on repair C. replacing the MASS battery D. serving food in observation zones

Correct answer: B

The passage explicitly says the purpose is orientation, not hands-on repair.

42. Which inference is NOT supported by Passage B?

A. Tags identify isolation status for training observation B. Apprentices must stay behind marked barriers C. Food and drinks are prohibited in marked observation zones D. Apprentices may begin energized repairs during the walkthrough

Correct answer: D

A, B, and C are stated. Hands-on repair is rejected by the passage, so D is not supported.

43. In Passage B, sequence matters when a barrier is missing because the group must first:

A. stop, then notify the supervisor before continuing B. finish repairs, then report the gap later C. choose a new plant area without telling anyone D. notify EEI for a new score transfer

Correct answer: A

The required order is stop, then notify the supervisor, before continuing.

Passage C (questions 44-45)

A conversion sheet used during a classroom drill lists length and volume factors. Students must select the factor that matches the units in each item. If the required factor is not on the sheet, students must choose “cannot be determined from the sheet” instead of inventing a conversion. The instructor grades accuracy before speed.

44. According to Passage C, if a needed conversion factor is not on the sheet, students should:

A. invent the most common conversion from memory B. skip grading entirely C. choose “cannot be determined from the sheet” instead of inventing a conversion D. always pick the largest number on the sheet

Correct answer: C

The passage states students must choose “cannot be determined from the sheet” rather than invent a conversion.

45. Passage C says the instructor grades:

A. speed before accuracy B. accuracy before speed C. only handwriting D. only attendance

Correct answer: B

The passage states the instructor grades accuracy before speed.

Practice Answer Key

1. B
2. A
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. D
8. C
9. A
10. B
11. C
12. D
13. B
14. A
15. C
16. D
17. A
18. B
19. C
20. A
21. B
22. D
23. C
24. A
25. B
26. D
27. A
28. C
29. B
30. D
31. A
32. C
33. B
34. D
35. D
36. C
37. B
38. D
39. A
40. C
41. B
42. D
43. A
44. C
45. B

How to Score This Practice Test

• 41-45 correct: Strong aptitude baseline
• 35-40 correct: Good readiness
• 27-34 correct: Moderate readiness
• 18-26 correct: Needs focused review
• 17 or fewer correct: Start with the fundamentals

These ranges apply only to the unofficial questions on this page. They are not an EEI score, MASS index, utility cutoff, Recommended or Not Recommended result, percentile, hiring decision, interview decision, or employment prediction.

How to Prepare for the MASS Test

1. Confirm that the assigned assessment is MASS.
2. Verify the full test name in the invitation.
3. Confirm the hiring utility.
4. Check the testing date and deadline.
5. Confirm the delivery method.
6. Confirm the testing location.
7. Confirm identification requirements.
8. Confirm calculator rules.
9. Confirm permitted reference materials.
10. Confirm whether breaks are scheduled.
11. Confirm accommodations procedures.
12. Review Mechanical Concepts.
13. Review Assembling Objects.
14. Review Mathematical Usage.
15. Review Reading Comprehension.
16. Practise using supplied conversion tables.
17. Build accuracy before speed.
18. Complete short timed drills.
19. Review every incorrect answer.
20. Contact the hiring utility about previous EEI scores.
21. Confirm retest rules when applicable.
22. Avoid recalled or leaked questions.
23. Do not use unauthorized help during the live assessment.
24. Follow the live instructions exactly.

Common Mistakes

• treating MASS as a generic maintenance-knowledge test;
• confusing MASS with POSS;
• confusing MASS with CAST;
• assuming every utility uses the same delivery format;
• stating that MASS is always paper-only;
• assuming computer delivery means remote testing;
• assuming 118 questions is universally current without verification;
• assuming the section timings never change;
• assuming calculators are allowed;
• assuming there is no penalty for wrong answers;
• inventing a universal passing score;
• assuming every employer reports a numeric score;
• assuming score transfer is automatic;
• assuming a 90-day retest rule applies everywhere;
• ignoring Assembling Objects;
• practising only mechanical questions;
• failing to use a supplied conversion table;
• mixing units;
• misreading rotation as reflection;
• overlooking passage qualifiers;
• sacrificing all accuracy for speed;
• treating an unofficial score as a hiring prediction;
• using leaked or recalled questions;
• using AI or automation during the live test.

Free versus Paid Preparation

Free preparation can help candidates:

• identify the assigned EEI battery;
• review current EEI information;
• practise original mechanical questions;
• practise object assembly;
• review mathematics and unit conversion;
• practise technical reading;
• identify weak areas.

Paid preparation may be useful for candidates seeking currently verified JobTestPrep MASS materials. As of the latest check of JobTestPrep’s EEI MASS product page (title: EEI MASS Test & Assessment Prep (2026)), the PrepPack messaging includes a diagnostic test with 20 questions, 2 full-length simulations with 118 questions each, 45 practice tests in the product selector messaging, study guides, a verbal-reasoning video tutorial, explanations, performance tracking language, and multi-duration access options. Product page and detail sections also describe 11 section-specific tests and 34 supplemental drills that reconcile to the broader “45 practice tests” and “48 practice tests” wording when diagnostics and simulations are counted as additional resources. Tier labels Basic, Advanced, and Premium map to access durations (such as 1 week, 1 month, and 3 months) rather than different content catalogs on the checked sell flow. Prices observed on that check were $79 / $89 / $99 for those durations. Payment is presented as one-time access for the selected period, with money-back and extension language controlled by JobTestPrep’s current terms.

JobTestPrep is a third-party preparation provider. It is not EEI, an electric utility, a hiring employer, or the official test administrator. Its practice tests do not reproduce official MASS questions or guarantee that every utility uses the same format.

Do not treat any purchase as a guarantee of a qualifying score, Recommended result, score transfer, interview, job offer, or employment.

For the wider EEI family overview, you may also review JobTestPrep’s overview of EEI employment tests. Keep the dedicated MASS package as the primary preparation destination when your invitation names MASS.

Official EEI and Utility Resources

• EEI Industry Training and Testing
• EEI Employment Test Batteries PDF (document code 062819 / creation metadata associated with 2019; verify whether EEI posts a newer revision)
• Entergy Pre-employment Testing (employer-specific MASS listing, score-release authorization process, and Entergy retest rules)

Notes:

• EEI controls the official battery name and general job-family purpose.
• The hiring utility controls applicant administration.
• EEI does not administer tests directly to applicants and does not provide applicant results directly.
• Delivery, cutoff, retest, and transfer rules may vary by company.
• JobTestPrep is not an official EEI source.
• Official EEI and utility URLs must not contain affiliate fragments.

When your invitation covers several skill areas, broader Assessment test preparation can support mixed review before test day.

For ranked-response or work-style sections, numerical reasoning preparation may also be useful when you need extra drills under time pressure.

Related Internal Guides

• Mechanical Aptitude Tests
• Mechanical Aptitude Test
• Industrial Maintenance Test
• Maintenance Technician Test
• Spatial Reasoning
• Reading Comprehension
• Numerical Reasoning
• Pipefitter Aptitude Test
• Millwright Aptitude Test
• PG&E Industrial Skills Test

FAQ